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> Io percipe que in Interlingua le -E final post -R- servi a un proposito
> phonetic. Illo indica le accento del parola.
>
> Si le parola termina in vocal + [R/N/L], le parola habe accento in le
> ultime syllaba:
>
> actOr / actiOn / actuAl
>
> Per altere latere, si le parola termina in vocal + [R/N/L] + -E, le
> parola habe accento in le antepenultime syllaba:
>
> lIbere / monOtone / dEbile
>
> Assi, le question quanto a -E in mulier(e) dependera del pronuncia del
> prototypo.

Le nominativo/vocativo latin: mu'lier, le altere casos: muli'er-.

> Scribente MULIERE, le vocal tonic (accentuate) esserea U o I, io non es
> certe (mU-lye-re o mu-lI-e-re?). Comocunque, isto non es lo que occurre
> in portugese e espaniol.
>
> In portugese MULHER e espaniol MUJER, le accento cade super le -ER
> final, e assi, secundo le regula supra, on deberea scriber MULIER.

Si, io crede que il es assi perque un de pauc mutationes del accento
in le latino vulgar era in parolas con "ie".  Le vocal "i" era mutate
in un consonant "j", e le accento era movite a le "e".  Ex "the Latin
language" de L.R.Palmer:

    There is general agreement that Vulgar Latin had stress accent which
  in the main fell on the same syllable as in Classical Latin.  Apparent
  exceptions are cases involving falling diphthongs like -ie- in words
  of the type pari'etem.  Here the semivowel became consonantal and
  the accent was transferred to the following vowel "parye'tem".

Isto pote explinar espaniol muje'r e portugese mulhe'r.  Le accusativo
latin classical muli'erem > latin vulgar mulje're(m) > espaniol muje'r.

  Ille continua:

  Penultimate vowels before consonant groups ending in an -r attracted
  the accent so that Classical Latin te'nebrae was in Vulgar Latin
  pronounced tene'brae; similarly i'ntergrum became inte'gru(m).

Esque interlingua debe haber le mesme mutation de le prototypo? (O
esque le prototypo es latino classical o latino vulgar?)

--
Steinar